Let us start with guys from a technical background. They can apply in technical service providing companies, i.e. BSNL, MTNL, SAIL, NHAI, NTPC, BHEL, ONGC, IOCL, HPCL, BPCL and many more. These PSUs recruit thousands of diploma and degree holding personnel in technical field. All these companies have their own recruiting procedures. Many of them recruit directly from prestigious engineering colleges; but even if you are not from such institutes, don’t worry, they have their off-campus recruitment procedure for you. Some of these companies have competitive type examinations and others have technical written and interview rounds. The intimation for the examination is generally notified beforehand repeatedly in all the leading daily newspapers and the application forms are made available from the respective offices. Administrative posts are also available for non-technical personnel in this sector. MBA personnel from non-technical fields also can join such offices in the managerial positions. Procedure of applying for such posts is usually the same as that for technical personnel. Apart from the positions mentioned above, non-technical personnel have a lucrative chance of securing an opening in the banking, insurance and unit trust sectors. Banks have their own recruiting process and recruitment in this field in on an upscale in the recent years. With a simple graduation you can apply for this field. Except RBI and private banks, every other bank comes under the PSU sector. Every bank has their own procedure for recruiting. Application forms for the examinations are available in the banks or even on the internet. Banking jobs are considered by many as one of the most secure jobs in India. There are several insurance and unit trust PSUs in India. They also conduct their own examination processes, information about which is generally available on their websites and also in the leading daily newspapers of the country. There are about 277 Central PSUs in India and all of them have their own recruitment procedures. They all advertise in the leading dailies and most of them hold all-India based recruitment examination. So all enthusiasts be prepared for a competitive examination with special emphasis on the Indian economic sector, and you are all set to roll the dice |
Showing posts with label sail. Show all posts
Showing posts with label sail. Show all posts
Sunday, 14 April 2013
How to get Job in PSUs
Thursday, 11 April 2013
STEEL AUTHORITY OF INDIA LIMITED (SAIL) MT TECHNICAL PREVIOUS QUESTIONS FOR ELECTRONICS
SAIL Management
trainee 2009 and 2010 previous papers/questions for electronics and
communications Technical.We already posted the expected exam pattern and syllabus of the management trainee electronics
1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.15 mH.
2. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,
A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
3. When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use
A. inverse hybrid
B. open circuit impedance
C. short circuit admittance
D. transmission
4. The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is
1. Two coils in differential connection have self-inductance of 2 mH and 4 mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
A. 5.7 mH
B. 5.85 mH
C. 6 mH
D. 6.15 mH.
2. In a 8085 microprocessor system with memory mapped I / 0,
A. I / 0 devices have 8-bit addresses
B. I / 0 devices are accessed using IN and OUT instructions
C. there can be a maximum of 256 input devices and 256 output devices.
D. arithmetic and logic operations can be directly performed with the I / 0 data.
3. When 2-port networks are connected in parallel, which parameters convenient to use
A. inverse hybrid
B. open circuit impedance
C. short circuit admittance
D. transmission
4. The number of comparators needed in a 4-bit flash type ADC is
A. 32
B. 8
C. 14
D. 15
5. Line imperfection in a crystal is called
A. Schottky defect
B. Frenkel defect
C. edge dislocation
D. Miller defect.
6. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly
A. 250 - 300 MHz
B. 150 - 200 MHz
C. 90 - 105 MHz
D. 30 - 70 MHz
7. A 10 MHz square wave clocks a 5-bit ripple counter. The frequency of third flip-flop’s output would be
A. 2
B. 1
C. 2.5
D. 1.25
8. Which of the following regulator provides output voltage polarity reversal without a transformer
A. Buck regulator
B. Boost regulator
C. Buck-boost regulator
D. Cuk regulator
9. The polarization required in ground wave propagation is
A. Horizontal (linear)
B. vertical (linear)
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
10. If the noise figure of a receiver is 1.6, its equivalent noise temperature is
A. 464.00 K
B. 174.00 K
C. 108.75 K
D. 181.25 K
11. The minimum value of the life of a transistor to be used in three section R-C phase shift oscillator is
A. 54.4
B. 44
C. 29
D. 32
12. Multicavity Klystron
A. is not a microwave device
B. is not a good low level amplifier because of noise
C. is not suitable to pulse operation
D. has a high repeller voltage to insure small transit time
13. The value of M in the end will be
Do 100 I = 1, 2
DO 200 J = 1, 2
M = M + I + J
200 CONTINUE
100 CONTINUE
STOP
END
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 14
14. In TV
system, vertical pulses are separated out from horizontal pulses by the use of
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sync separator
15. Fourier’s series expansion of an odd periodic function contains
A. integrator
B. differentiator
C. sweep credit
D. sync separator
15. Fourier’s series expansion of an odd periodic function contains
- sine terms only
- cosine terms only
- Both A and B
- None of the above
16. The following programme is run on an 8085 microprocessor,
Memory address in Hex Instruction
2000 LXI SP, 1000
2003 PUSH H
2004 PUSH D
2005 CALL 2050
2008 POP 2050
2009 HIT
As the completion of execution of the program, the program the program counter of the 8085 contains ………, and the stack pointer contains ……..
- 2050, OFFC
- 2251, OFFC
- 1025, OCCF
- 1025, OCCF
17. 200 MHz may be
classified as
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. EHF
18. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
A. linear time variant systems
B. non-linear time variant systems
C. linear time invariant systems
D. non-linear time invariant systems.
19. Dislocations in materials are
A. point defect
B. line defect
C. planer defect
D. surface defects.
20. The binary representation of 5.375 is
A. 111.1011
B. 101.1101
C. 101.011
D. 111.001
21. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic voltmeter
C. Moving coil voltmeter
D. Moving iron voltmeter.
22. For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except
A. VHF
B. SHF
C. UHF
D. EHF
18. The principles of homogeneity and super-position are applied to :
A. linear time variant systems
B. non-linear time variant systems
C. linear time invariant systems
D. non-linear time invariant systems.
19. Dislocations in materials are
A. point defect
B. line defect
C. planer defect
D. surface defects.
20. The binary representation of 5.375 is
A. 111.1011
B. 101.1101
C. 101.011
D. 111.001
21. Which one out of the following instruments should be used to measure 600 kV a.c. voltages?
A. Hot wire instrument
B. Electrostatic voltmeter
C. Moving coil voltmeter
D. Moving iron voltmeter.
22. For a LC parallel circuit at resonance, all the statements given below are correct except
- the line current
is maximum at resonance
- the branch
currents at resonance are equal
- the admittance is
minimum at resonance
- the angle between
the branch current is 180oC at resonance.
23. The Taylor series expansion of the function F(x) = x/(1+x), around x=0 is
- x+x2+x3+x4+…….
- x+x2+x3+x4+…….
- 2x+42+8x3+16x4+…….
- x-x2+x3-x4+…….
24.The
mobility of electron in copper is :Given atomic weight = 63.54, density = 8.96
gm/cc, resistivity = 1.7×10–6 W-cm, Avogadro’s number = 6.025 ×1023
A.30 cm2/V-5
B.43.28 cm2/V-5
C.50 cm2/V-5
D.data not sufficient
25. If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass filter, then average value of output is
A.30 cm2/V-5
B.43.28 cm2/V-5
C.50 cm2/V-5
D.data not sufficient
25. If a square wave voltage having 5V average value is applied to a low pass filter, then average value of output is
- 10 V
- 2.5 V
- 5 V
- 0 V
26. Resistivity of electrical conductors is
most affected by
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. composition
D. all of the above.
27. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
A. equalizing pulse
B. retrace interval between each line
C. retrace period of vertical line
D. none of the above.
28. The capacity of a channel is
A. number of digits used in coding
B. volume of information it can take
C. maximum rate of information transmission
D. bandwidth required for information
29. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
30. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is
A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
B. to increase the bandwidth
C. to increase the power output
D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. composition
D. all of the above.
27. In CCIR B-system of TV, blanking pulse is placed during
A. equalizing pulse
B. retrace interval between each line
C. retrace period of vertical line
D. none of the above.
28. The capacity of a channel is
A. number of digits used in coding
B. volume of information it can take
C. maximum rate of information transmission
D. bandwidth required for information
29. Sometimes microwave signals follow the earth’s curvature. This due to
A. Ionospheric reflection
B. Faraday rotation
C. Ducting
D. Ionospheric scatter.
30. The function of diplexer bridge in a TV transmitter is
A. to prevent the loading of several transmitters by video transmitter
B. to increase the bandwidth
C. to increase the power output
D. to increase the efficiency of transmission.
Labels:
management trainee jobs,
sail,
sail jobs,
sail syllabus
SAIL 2013 MANGEMENT TRAINEE SYLLABUS FOR ELECTRONICS
There is no
prescribed syllabus or previous question papers given by Steel authority of
india. They wont give the papers outside after the exam,We are posting the
expecting syllabus and Questions.Recently they released a notification for
the recruitment of the
Management trainees.
Basically the exam consists of two
papers 1.technical 2. general, there is an individual cutoff's to
each papers i.e we have to qualify on both the papers.
1.Technical:
Analog and digital
electronics,microprocessors,instrumentaion,control systems, communication
systems,Signals and systems,Mathematics,Electromagnetics.
2. General:
Aptitude and reasoning: RS AGARWAL
basics of
physics,chemistry,History,indian polity,geography,life science,Current
affairs,latest news on sports,science read daily news papers like hindu, times
of india.
Labels:
E.C.E,
management trainee jobs,
sail,
sail jobs,
sail syllabus
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